I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn’t help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.

Don’t get me wrong I don’t know much about the guy and what he did or didn’t do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.

But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I’d be happy if someone could explain me.

  • redballooon@lemm.ee
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    2
    ·
    1 year ago

    Depends on the contract between that man and YouTube. Most countries are strong in enforcing contract terms.

    • roguetrick@kbin.social
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      5
      ·
      edit-2
      1 year ago

      The idea that Google would give anyone a contract that says something other than “we’ll fuck you if we feel like it.” Hahahaha.

      • redballooon@lemm.ee
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        1
        ·
        edit-2
        1 year ago

        True, but that comment was still badly conceived. Because pretty much all countries would absolutely crack down on a platform, should there be a contract that states that there must be a conviction, and no morality clause. This can absolutely legally be in a contract.