• ieatpillowtags@lemm.ee
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    1
    ·
    edit-2
    1 year ago

    Because Stalin didn’t invade Poland and the Baltic states, right? And he didn’t sign agreements with hitler before the war?

    Oh oh let me guess, they were “saving them from Nazis”! Now where have I heard that before…

    • RichCaffeineFlavor@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      3
      ·
      1 year ago

      The west constantly uses the memory of appeasement to justify its killings today but back when it was happening Stalin tried to start the war when Hitler could be easily crushed. It’s only after the west decided they would rather use the nazis to kill the communists than prevent the holocaust that deal was made.

      • ieatpillowtags@lemm.ee
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        1
        ·
        1 year ago

        What are you even talking about? Hitler attacked the Soviets, not the other way around. And it was because they broke their agreement and took territory that they said they wouldn’t.

        Appeasement isn’t even relevant in this context, so not sure what you mean by that.

          • ieatpillowtags@lemm.ee
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            1
            ·
            1 year ago

            In the context of WW2 appeasement refers to Britain and the rest of Europe giving pieces of Czechoslovakia to Germany. Not a deal between the Soviets and Germany to carve up Eastern Europe.

            It’s ok keep working on your English!