I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn’t help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.

Don’t get me wrong I don’t know much about the guy and what he did or didn’t do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.

But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I’d be happy if someone could explain me.

  • Sorchist@kbin.social
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    15
    ·
    1 year ago

    Do you live in a country where the government would put a gun to YouTube’s head and say 'YOU HAVE TO KEEP BROADCASTING THIS MAN’S CHANNEL, PUT ADS ON IT, AND SHARE THE AD REVENUE WITH HIM, WHETHER YOU WANT TO OR NOT, UNTIL AND UNLESS HE IS CONVICTED OF A CRIME"?

    That seems weird.

    • redballooon@lemm.ee
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      ·
      1 year ago

      Depends on the contract between that man and YouTube. Most countries are strong in enforcing contract terms.

      • roguetrick@kbin.social
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        5
        ·
        edit-2
        1 year ago

        The idea that Google would give anyone a contract that says something other than “we’ll fuck you if we feel like it.” Hahahaha.

        • redballooon@lemm.ee
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          1
          ·
          edit-2
          1 year ago

          True, but that comment was still badly conceived. Because pretty much all countries would absolutely crack down on a platform, should there be a contract that states that there must be a conviction, and no morality clause. This can absolutely legally be in a contract.